Metabolism Reaction & Enzyme Of Organism
This quiz covers metabolism reaction and enzyme of organism.
Which of the following refers to the term metabolism?
a.all the reactions in a cell or organism – correct
b.all the reactions in a cell that break down molecules only
c.all the reactions in a cell that build new molecules only
d.all the reactions in a cell that decompose molecules only
Which of the following best describes an endergonic reaction?
a.absorbs energy from the environment – correct
b.is coupled with another reaction
c.is involved in biosynthesis
d.releases energy into the environment
Chemotrophs obtain their energy from which of the following?
a.inorganic chemical reactions only
b.light energy
c.organic chemical reactions only
d.organic and inorganic chemical reactions – correct
Which of the following describes a molecule that had an electron removed?
a.anabolized
b.electronated
c.oxidized – correct
d.reduced
Which of the following best describes the subcomponents of pyrophosphate?
a.two inorganic phosphate molecules- correct
b.two organic phosphate molecules
c.three inorganic phosphate molecules
d.three organic phosphate molecules
Which site on an enzyme is where substrates bind?
a.the activation site
b.the active site- correctc.the catalyst site
d.the lock and key site
Which of the following best describes catabolic pathways?
a.They always absorb energy.
b.They break down large molecules into smaller components.- correct
c.They build up large molecules from smaller components.
d.They must be coupled with the breakdown of ATP
Which group comprises all lithotrophs?
a.algae
b.autotrophs
c.microbes – correct
d.plants
Which is a common electron acceptor in catabolic reactions?
a.ATP
b.FADH2
c.NAD+ – correct
d.NADPH
The reaction that breaks down ATP to form ADP and inorganic phosphate is classified as which of the following?
a.endergonic
b.exergonic – correct
c.nonspontaneous
d.reduction
Which of the following is an inhibitor that binds to the active site of an enzyme?
a.a competitive inhibitor – correct
b.a noncompetitive inhibitor
c.an allosteric inhibitor
d.an uncompetitive inhibitor
Glycolysis produces a net gain of which of the following?
a.two ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates – correct
b.two ATP, two NADH, and four pyruvates
c.two ATP, four NADH, and two pyruvates
d.four ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates
Which of the following is a pathway that breaks down glucose in some microbes?
a.the Calvin cycle
b.the Entner-Doudoroff pathway – correct
c.the Krebs cycle
d.the tricarboxylic acid cycle
Which of the following best describes a transition reaction?
a.a reaction that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA with the release of carbon dioxide – correct
b.a series of reactions that convert citric acid to oxaloacetate
c.an optional reaction that transports pyruvate into the mitochondrion
d.the reaction that converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis
Which of the following is not a product of the Krebs cycle?
a.carbon dioxide
b.GTP, which is converted to ATP
c.NADH
d.pyruvate – correct
The Krebs cycle begins with the addition of acetyl CoA to which of the following?
a.citric acid
b.oxaloacetate – correct
c.ribulose bisphosphate
d.succinate dehydrogenase
Which of the following is the step in which CO2 enters the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle)?
a.fixation – correct
b.reduction
c.regeneration
d.transition
Carotenoids are pigments that are which of the following colors?
a.blue/green
b.green/orange
c.orange/yellow/red – correct
d.purple/blue
Which of the following are enzymes that break down proteins?
a.amylases
b.oxidasesc.
c.oxygenases
d.proteases – correct
Fatty acids are often degraded using which set of reactions
a.β-oxidation – correct
b.glycolysis
c.photophosphorylation
d.the tricarboxylic acid cycle
Triglycerides are broken down by which of the following?
a.lipases – correct
b.nitrogenases
c.phospholipases
d.proteases
During the Krebs cycle, FAD is reduced to which of the following
a.FADH
b.FADH2 – correct
c.NADH
d.NADH2
Which of the following is the purpose of fermentation?
a.to produce carbon dioxide
b.to produce large quantities of additional energy
c.to regenerate NAD+ – correct
d.to regenerate oxygen
ATP is produced through oxidative phosphorylation when which of the following occurs?
a.FADH2 donates electrons to succinate dehydrogenase
b.H+ moves through ATP synthase – correctc.NADH donates electrons to NADH dehydrogenase
d.the light-independent reactions fix CO2
1. Which of the following refers to the term metabolism?
A. all the reactions in a cell or organism- correct
B. all the reactions in a cell that break down molecules only
C. all the reactions in a cell that build new molecules only
D. all the reactions in a cell that decompose molecules only
2. Which of the following best describes an endergonic reaction?
A. absorbs energy from the environment- correct
B. is coupled with another reaction
C. is involved in biosynthesis
D. releases energy into the environment
3. Chemotrophs obtain their energy from which of the following?
A. inorganic chemical reactions only
B. light energy
C. organic chemical reactions only
D. organic and inorganic chemical reactions- correct
4. Which of the following describes a molecule that had an electron removed?
A. anabolized
B. electronated
C. oxidized- correct
D. reduced
5. Which of the following best describes the subcomponents of pyrophosphate?
A. two inorganic phosphate molecules- correct
B. two organic phosphate molecules
C. three inorganic phosphate molecules
D. three organic phosphate molecules
6. Which molecule is often called the cell’s energy currency?
A. adenosine triphosphate- correct
B. flavin adenine dinucleotide
C. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
D. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
7. Which site on an enzyme is where substrates bind?
A. the activation site
B. the active site- correct
C. the catalyst site
D. the lock and key site
8. Which of the following are inorganic molecules that bind to enzymes?
A. apoenzymes
B. coenzymes
C. cofactors- correct
D. holoenzymes
9. Which of the following best describes catabolic pathways?
A. They always absorb energy.
B. They break down large molecules into smaller components. – correct
C. They build up large molecules from smaller components.
D. They must be coupled with the breakdown of ATP.
10. Which group comprises all lithotrophs?
A. algae
B. autotrophs
C. microbes- correct
D. plants
11. Which is a common electron acceptor in catabolic reactions?
A. ATP
B. FADH2
C. NAD+- correct
D. NADPH
12. The reaction that breaks down ATP to form ADP and inorganic phosphate is classified as which of the following?
A. endergonic
B. exergonic- correct
C. nonspontaneous
D. reduction
13. Which of the following is an inhibitor that binds to the active site of an enzyme?
A. a competitive inhibitor- correct
B. a noncompetitive inhibitor
C. an allosteric inhibitor
D. an uncompetitive inhibitor
14. Glycolysis produces a net gain of which of the following?
A. two ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates- correct
B. two ATP, two NADH, and four pyruvates
C. two ATP, four NADH, and two pyruvates
D. four ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates
15. Which of the following is a pathway that breaks down glucose in some microbes?
A. the Calvin cycle
B. the Entner-Doudoroff pathway- correct
C. the Krebs cycle
D. the tricarboxylic acid cycle
16. Which of the following best describes a transition reaction?
A. a reaction that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA with the release of carbon dioxide- correct
B. a series of reactions that convert citric acid to oxaloacetate
C. an optional reaction that transports pyruvate into the mitochondrion
D. the reaction that converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis
17. Which of the following is nota product of the Krebs cycle?
A. carbon dioxide
B. GTP, which is converted to ATP
C. NADH
D. pyruvate- correct
18. The Krebs cycle begins with the addition of acetyl CoA to which of the following?
A. citric acid
B. oxaloacetate- correct
C. ribulose bisphosphate
D. succinate dehydrogenase
19. During the Krebs cycle, FAD is reduced to which of the following?
A. FADH
B. FADH2- correct
C. NADH
D. NADH2
20. Which of the following is the purpose of fermentation?
A. to produce carbon dioxide
B. to produce large quantities of additional energy
C. to regenerate NAD+- correct
D. to regenerate oxygen
21. ATP is produced through oxidative phosphorylation when which of the following occurs?
A. FADH2 donates electrons to succinate dehydrogenase
B. H+ moves through ATP synthase- correct
C. NADH donates electrons to NADH dehydrogenase
D. the light-independent reactions fix CO
22. Each pyruvate molecule contains how many carbon atoms?
A. two
B. three- correct
C. four
D. six
23. When is the pentose phosphate pathway favored over other pathways to break down glucose?
A. when biosynthesis is not needed
B. when phospholipids are needed
D. when the cell has a severe energy deficit and needs energy rapidly
C. when the synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins is needed- correct
24. Which of the following best defines chemiosmosis?
A. the disruption of the inner mitochondrial membrane, which dissipates energy
B. the movement of electrons from one acceptor to another
C. the movement of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase- correct
D. the series of reactions that regenerate oxaloacetate
25. Why is the actual ATP yield of aerobic respiration often less than the maximum possible yield of 38 ATP?
A. Aerobic respiration competes with anaerobic respiration for energy.
B. Aerobic respiration competes with fermentation for energy.
C. In eukaryotes, energy is used to move molecules across membranes. – correct
D. No organisms complete all parts of aerobic respiration.
26. Glycolysis cannot occur in an anaerobic environment.
True
False- correct
27. Nitrogen is fixed to ammonia by cyanobacteria and other microbes.
True- correct
False
28. Fermentation is necessary because it provides additional energy compared with glycolysis alone.
True
False- correct
102. Which of the following is the step in which CO2 enters the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle)?
A. fixation- correct
B. reduction
C. regeneration
D. transition
103. Carotenoids are pigments that are which of the following colors?
A. blue/green
B. green/orange
C. orange/yellow/red- correct
D. purple/blue
104. Which of the following are enzymes that break down proteins?
A. amylases
B. oxidases
C. oxygenases
D. proteases- correct
105. Fatty acids are often degraded using which set of reactions?
A. β-oxidation- correct
B. glycolysis
C. photophosphorylation
D. the tricarboxylic acid cycle
106. Triglycerides are broken down by which of the following?
A. lipases- correct
B. nitrogenases
C. phospholipases
D. proteases
111. Which of the following best defines chemiosmosis?
A. the disruption of the inner mitochondrial membrane, which dissipates energy
B. the movement of electrons from one acceptor to another
C. the movement of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase- correct
D. the series of reactions that regenerate oxaloacetate
112. Which of the following is the most acidic location in a mitochondrion?
A. the intermembrane space- correct
B. the matrix
C. within the outer membrane
D. within the thylakoid
113. Which of the following is not a common electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration?
A. Fe3
B. H2S
C. NO3-
D. PO43– correct
117. The light reactions of photosynthesis include an electron transport chain.
True- correct
False
119. E. coli can be distinguished from some if its close gram-negative relatives because it can ferment lactose.
True- correct
False
120. Oxygen is necessary for an electron transport chain to function.
True
False- correct
A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of
a. Conjugation
b. Generalized transduction- correct
c. Specialized transduction
d. Creation of an Hfr cell
e. None of the choices are correct
A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations?
a. Missense and insertion
b. Missense and nonsense
c. Nonsense and deletion
d. Deletion and insertion- correct
e. Insertion and nonsense
A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the
a. Nuclear membrane
b. rRNA
c. mRNA
d. Histone- correct
e. Nucleolus
A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n)
a. Translation
b. Transcription
c. Mutation- correct
d. Alteration
e. Regeneration
A primer of ____ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.
a. Polymerase III
b. Polymerase I
c. Helicase
d. RNA- correct
e. DNA
A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an
a. Promoter
b. Operator
c. Operon
d. Exon
e. Intron- correct
All of the following pertain to transcription except
a. Occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm- correct
b. Occurs before translation
c. Requires RNA polymerase
d. Requires a template DNA strand
e. Is a process of protein synthesis
Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include
a. Chromosomes
b. Plasmids
c. Mitochondrial DNA
d. Chloroplast DNA
e. All of the choices are correct- correct
Bacterial conjugation involves
a. Bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell
b. A donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus- correct
c. Naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell
d. New progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells
e. None of the choices are correct
Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
a. Peptide
b. Non polar covalent
c. Polar covalent
d. Hydrogen- correct
e. Sulfhydryl
DNA Polymerase I
a. Removes primers- correct
b. Adds bases to new DNA chain
c. Seals DNA gaps
d. Proofreads DNA chain
e. All of the choices are correct
DNA polymerase III
a. Is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis
b. Synthesizes new DNA only in the 5′ to 3′ direction- correct
c. Cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand
d. Synthesizes an RNA primer
e. All of the choices are correct
Each nucleotide is composed of
a. One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar- correct
b. One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars
c. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar
d. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars
e. One phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar
Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
a. Histone proteins
b. Chromosomes in a nucleus
c. Several to many chromosomes
d. Elongated, not circular, chromosomes
e. All of the choices are correct- correct
Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription.
a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA polymerase III
c. RNA polymerase- correct
d. mRNA
e. rRNA
Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one
a. Protein
b. Nucleotide
c. Amino acid- correct
d. Purine
e. None of the choices are correct
Helicase
a. Unwinds DNA- correct
b. Supercoils DNA
c. Unwinds RNA
d. Winds RNA
e. None of the choices are correct
If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?
a. Missense
b. Nonsense
c. Insertion- correct
d. Deletion
e. Silent
If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?
a. Missense
b. Nonsense- correct
c. Insertion
d. Deletion
e. Silent
If you have the sequence of mRNA that is AUAUGC, then the DNA antisense strand is ____.
a. AUAUGC
b. UAUACG
c. TATACG- correct
d. CGUAUA
RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
a. Has ribose
b. Has uracil
c. Is typically one strand of nucleotides
d. Does not have thymine
e. All of the choices are correct- correct
RNA polymerase binds to the
a. Start codon
b. Termination sequence
c. Regulation sequence
d. Promoter sequence- correct
e. None of the choices are correct
Semiconservative replication refers to
a. Each base bonding at the 1′ position of the sugar
b. A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
c. One helix strand that runs from the 5′ to 3′ direction and the other strand runs from the 3′ to 5′ direction
d. An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule- correct
e. None of the choices are correct
The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called
a. Histones
b. Amino acids
c. Nucleotides- correct
d. mRNA
e. Polymerases
The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
a. Ribosomal RNA
b. Messenger RNA
c. Transfer RNA- correct
d. Primer RNA
e. Ribozymes
The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.
a. Chromosome
b. Plasmid
c. Prophage
d. Genome- correct
e. Proteome
The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
a. Each base bonding at the 1′ position of the sugar
b. A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
c. One helix strand that runs from the 5′ to 3′ direction and the other strand runs from the 3′ to 5′ direction- correct
d. An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
e. None of the choices are correct
The expression of genetic traits is the
a. Genome
b. Genotype
c. Proteome
d. Phenotype- correct
e. Proteotype
The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the
a. Operator
b. Structural locus
c. Regulator- correct
d. Promoter
e. None of the choices are correct
The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by
a. Conjugation
b. Transposons- correct
c. Transformation
d. Transduction
e. Transmission
The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the
a. Promoter- correct
b. Operator
c. Operon
d. Exon
e. Intron
The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the
a. Primer
b. Okazaki fragment
c. Template
d. Rolling circle
e. Replication fork- correct
The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is
a. Transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation- correct
d. Transmission
e. Mitosis
What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for?
a. Silent- correct
b. Back
c. Point
d. Nonsense
e. Missense
Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
a. Transformation
b. Conjugation
c. Mitosis- correct
d. Transduction
e. None of the above
1. Which of the following refers to the term metabolism?
A. all the reactions in a cell or organism- correct
B. all the reactions in a cell that break down molecules only
C. all the reactions in a cell that build new molecules only
D. all the reactions in a cell that decompose molecules only
2. Which of the following best describes an endergonic reaction?
A. absorbs energy from the environment- correct
B. is coupled with another reaction
C. is involved in biosynthesis
D. releases energy into the environment
3. Chemotrophs obtain their energy from which of the following?
A. inorganic chemical reactions only
B. light energy
C. organic chemical reactions only
D. organic and inorganic chemical reactions- correct
4. Which of the following describes a molecule that had an electron removed?
A. anabolized
B. electronated
C. oxidized- correct
D. reduced
Which of the following best describes the subcomponents of pyrophosphate?
A. two inorganic phosphate molecules- correct
B. two organic phosphate molecules
C. three inorganic phosphate molecules
D. three organic phosphate molecules
Which molecule is often called the cell’s energy currency?
A. adenosine triphosphate- correct
B. flavin adenine dinucleotide
C. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
D. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
Which site on an enzyme is where substrates bind?
A. the activation site
B. the active site- correct
C. the catalyst site
D. the lock and key site
Which of the following are inorganic molecules that bind to enzymes?
A. apoenzymes
B. coenzymes
C. cofactors- correct
D. holoenzymes
Which of the following best describes catabolic pathways?
A. They always absorb energy.
B. They break down large molecules into smaller components. – correct
C. They build up large molecules from smaller components.
D. They must be coupled with the breakdown of ATP.
Which group comprises all lithotrophs?
A. algae
B. autotrophs
C. microbes- correct
D. plants
Which is a common electron acceptor in catabolic reactions?
A. ATP
B. FADH2
C. NAD+- correct
D. NADPH
The reaction that breaks down ATP to form ADP and inorganic phosphate is classified as which of the following?
A. endergonic
B. exergonic- correct
C. nonspontaneous
D. reduction
Which of the following is an inhibitor that binds to the active site of an enzyme?
A. a competitive inhibitor- correct
B. a noncompetitive inhibitor
C. an allosteric inhibitor
D. an uncompetitive inhibitor
Glycolysis produces a net gain of which of the following?
A. two ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates- correct
B. two ATP, two NADH, and four pyruvates
C. two ATP, four NADH, and two pyruvates
D. four ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates
Which of the following is a pathway that breaks down glucose in some microbes?
A. the Calvin cycle
B. the Entner-Doudoroff pathway- correct
C. the Krebs cycle
D. the tricarboxylic acid cycle
Which of the following best describes a transition reaction?
A. a reaction that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA with the release of carbon dioxide- correct
B. a series of reactions that convert citric acid to oxaloacetate
C. an optional reaction that transports pyruvate into the mitochondrion
D. the reaction that converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis
Which of the following is not a product of the Krebs cycle?
A. carbon dioxide
B. GTP, which is converted to ATP
C. NADH
D. pyruvate- correct
The Krebs cycle begins with the addition of acetyl CoA to which of the following?
A. citric acid
B. oxaloacetate- correct
C. ribulose bisphosphate
D. succinate dehydrogenase
19. During the Krebs cycle, FAD is reduced to which of the following?
A. FADH
B. FADH2- correct
C. NADH
D. NADH2
Which of the following is the purpose of fermentation?
A. to produce carbon dioxide
B. to produce large quantities of additional energy
C. to regenerate NAD+- correct
D. to regenerate oxygen
ATP is produced through oxidative phosphorylation when which of the following occurs?
A. FADH2 donates electrons to succinate dehydrogenase
B. H+ moves through ATP synthase- correct
C. NADH donates electrons to NADH dehydrogenase
D. the light-independent reactions fix CO2
Each pyruvate molecule contains how many carbon atoms?
A. two
B. three- correct
C. four
D. six
When is the pentose phosphate pathway favored over other pathways to break down glucose?
A. when biosynthesis is not needed
B. when phospholipids are needed
D. when the cell has a severe energy deficit and needs energy rapidly
C. when the synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins is needed- correct
Which of the following best defines chemiosmosis?
A. the disruption of the inner mitochondrial membrane, which dissipates energy
B. the movement of electrons from one acceptor to another
C. the movement of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase- correct
D. the series of reactions that regenerate oxaloacetate
Why is the actual ATP yield of aerobic respiration often less than the maximum possible yield of 38 ATP?
A. Aerobic respiration competes with anaerobic respiration for energy.
B. Aerobic respiration competes with fermentation for energy.
C. In eukaryotes, energy is used to move molecules across membranes.
D. No organisms complete all parts of aerobic respiration.
Which of the following refers to the term metabolism?
a.all the reactions in a cell or organism- correct
b.all the reactions in a cell that break down molecules only
c.all the reactions in a cell that build new molecules only
d.all the reactions in a cell that decompose molecules only
Which of the following best describes an endergonic reaction?
a.absorbs energy from the environment
b.is coupled with another reaction
c.is involved in biosynthesis
d.releases energy into the environment
Chemotrophs obtain their energy from which of the following?
a.inorganic chemical reactions only
b.light energy
c.organic chemical reactions only
d.organic and inorganic chemical reactions- correct
Which of the following describes a molecule that had an electron removed?
a.anabolized
b.electronated
c.oxidized- correct
d.reduced
Which of the following best describes the subcomponents of pyrophosphate?
a.two inorganic phosphate molecules- correct
b.two organic phosphate molecules
c.three inorganic phosphate molecules
d.three organic phosphate molecules
Which site on an enzyme is where substrates bind?
a.the activation site
b.the active site- correct
c.the catalyst site
d.the lock and key site
Which of the following best describes catabolic pathways?
a.They always absorb energy.
b.They break down large molecules into smaller components. – correct
c.They build up large molecules from smaller components.
d.They must be coupled with the breakdown of ATP
Which group comprises all lithotrophs?
a.algae
b.autotrophs
c.microbes- correct
d.plants
Which is a common electron acceptor in catabolic reactions?
a.ATP
b.FADH2
c.NAD+- correct
d.NADPH
The reaction that breaks down ATP to form ADP and inorganic phosphate is classified as which of the following?
a.endergonic
b.exergonic- correct
c.nonspontaneous
d.reduction
Which of the following is an inhibitor that binds to the active site of an enzyme?
a.a competitive inhibitor- correct
b.a noncompetitive inhibitor
c.an allosteric inhibitor
d.an uncompetitive inhibitor
Glycolysis produces a net gain of which of the following?
a.two ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates- correct
b.two ATP, two NADH, and four pyruvates
c.two ATP, four NADH, and two pyruvates
d.four ATP, two NADH, and two pyruvates
Which of the following is a pathway that breaks down glucose in some microbes?
a.the Calvin cycle
b.the Entner-Doudoroff pathway- correct
c.the Krebs cycle
d.the tricarboxylic acid cycle
Which of the following best describes a transition reaction?
a.a reaction that converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA with the release of carbon dioxide- correct
b.a series of reactions that convert citric acid to oxaloacetate
c.an optional reaction that transports pyruvate into the mitochondrion
d.the reaction that converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis
Which of the following is not a product of the Krebs cycle?
a.carbon dioxide
b.GTP, which is converted to ATP
c.NADH
d.pyruvate- correct
The Krebs cycle begins with the addition of acetyl CoA to which of the following?
a.citric acid
b.oxaloacetate- correct
c.ribulose bisphosphate
d.succinate dehydrogenase
Which of the following is the step in which CO2 enters the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle)?
a.fixation- correct
b.reduction
c.regeneration
d.transition
Carotenoids are pigments that are which of the following colors?
a.blue/green
b.green/orange
c.orange/yellow/red- correct
d.purple/blue
Which of the following are enzymes that break down proteins?
a.amylases
b.oxidases
c.oxygenases
d.proteases- correct
Fatty acids are often degraded using which set of reactions
a.β-oxidation- correct
b.glycolysis
c.photophosphorylation
d.the tricarboxylic acid cycle
Triglycerides are broken down by which of the following?
a.lipases- correct
b.nitrogenases
c.phospholipases
d.proteases
During the Krebs cycle, FAD is reduced to which of the following
a.FADH
b.FADH2- correct
c.NADH
d.NADH2
Which of the following is the purpose of fermentation?
a.to produce carbon dioxide
b.to produce large quantities of additional energy
c.to regenerate NAD+- correct
d.to regenerate oxygen
ATP is produced through oxidative phosphorylation when which of the following occurs?
a.FADH2 donates electrons to succinate dehydrogenase
b.H+ moves through ATP synthase- correct
c.NADH donates electrons to NADH dehydrogenase
d.the light-independent reactions fix CO2
A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of
a. Conjugation
b. Generalized transduction – correct
c. Specialized transduction
d. Creation of an Hfr cell
e. None of the choices are correct
A frameshift is caused by ______ mutations?
a. Missense and insertion
b. Missense and nonsense
c. Nonsense and deletion
d. Deletion and insertion – correct
e. Insertion and nonsense
A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the
a. Nuclear membrane
b. rRNA
c. mRNA
d. Histone – correct
e. Nucleolus
A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n)
a. Translation
b. Transcription
c. Mutation – correct
d. Alteration
e. Regeneration
A primer of ____ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.
a. Polymerase III
b. Polymerase I
c. Helicase
d. RNA – correct
e. DNA
A sequence of bases on a gene that does not code for protein is called a/an
a. Promoter
b. Operator
c. Operon
d. Exon
e. Intron – correct
All of the following pertain to transcription except
a. Occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm – correct
b. Occurs before translation
c. Requires RNA polymerase
d. Requires a template DNA strand
e. Is a process of protein synthesis
Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include
a. Chromosomes
b. Plasmids
c. Mitochondrial DNA
d. Chloroplast DNA
e. All of the choices are correct – correct
Bacterial conjugation involves
a. Bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell
b. A donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus – correct
c. Naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell are taken up by a recipient cell
d. New progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells
e. None of the choices are correct
Base pairs in DNA are held together by _____ bonds.
a. Peptide
b. Non polar covalent
c. Polar covalent
d. Hydrogen – correct
e. Sulfhydryl
DNA Polymerase I
a. Removes primers – correct
b. Adds bases to new DNA chain
c. Seals DNA gaps
d. Proofreads DNA chain
e. All of the choices are correct
DNA polymerase III
a. Is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis
b. Synthesizes new DNA only in the 5′ to 3′ direction – correct
c. Cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand
d. Synthesizes an RNA primer
e. All of the choices are correct
Each nucleotide is composed of
a. One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar – correct
b. One phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars
c. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar
d. Two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars
e. One phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar
Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have
a. Histone proteins
b. Chromosomes in a nucleus
c. Several to many chromosomes
d. Elongated, not circular, chromosomes
e. All of the choices are correct – correct
Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks _____ from initiating transcription.
a. DNA polymerase I
b. DNA polymerase III
c. RNA polymerase – correct
d. mRNA
e. rRNA
Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one
a. Protein
b. Nucleotide
c. Amino acid – correct
d. Purine
e. None of the choices are correct
Helicase
a. Unwinds DNA – correct
b. Supercoils DNA
c. Unwinds RNA
d. Winds RNA
e. None of the choices are correct
If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?
a. Missense
b. Nonsense
c. Insertion – correct
d. Deletion
e. Silent
If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?
a. Missense
b. Nonsense – correct
c. Insertion
d. Deletion
e. Silent
If you have the sequence of mRNA that is AUAUGC, then the DNA antisense strand is ____.
a. AUAUGC
b. UAUACG
c. TATACG – correct
d. CGUAUA
RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA
a. Has ribose
b. Has uracil
c. Is typically one strand of nucleotides
d. Does not have thymine
e. All of the choices are correct – correct
RNA polymerase binds to the
a. Start codon
b. Termination sequence
c. Regulation sequence
d. Promoter sequence – correct
e. None of the choices are correct
Semiconservative replication refers to
a. Each base bonding at the 1′ position of the sugar
b. A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
c. One helix strand that runs from the 5′ to 3′ direction and the other strand runs from the 3′ to 5′ direction
d. An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule – correct
e. None of the choices are correct
The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called
a. Histones
b. Amino acids
c. Nucleotides – correct
d. mRNA
e. Polymerases
The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called
a. Ribosomal RNA
b. Messenger RNA
c. Transfer RNA – correct
d. Primer RNA
e. Ribozymes
The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.
a. Chromosome
b. Plasmid
c. Prophage
d. Genome – correct
e. Proteome
The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to
a. Each base bonding at the 1′ position of the sugar
b. A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine
c. One helix strand that runs from the 5′ to 3′ direction and the other strand runs from the 3′ to 5′ direction – correct
d. An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule
e. None of the choices are correct
The expression of genetic traits is the
a. Genome
b. Genotype
c. Proteome
d. Phenotype – correct
e. Proteotype
The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the
a. Operator
b. Structural locus
c. Regulator – correct
d. Promoter
e. None of the choices are correct
The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by
a. Conjugation
b. Transposons – correct
c. Transformation
d. Transduction
e. Transmission
The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the
a. Promoter – correct
b. Operator
c. Operon
d. Exon
e. Intron
The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the
a. Primer
b. Okazaki fragment
c. Template
d. Rolling circle
e. Replication fork – correct
The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is
a. Transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Transformation
d. Transmission – correct
e. Mitosis
What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for?
a. Silent – correct
b. Back
c. Point
d. Nonsense
e. Missense
Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?
a. Transformation
b. Conjugation
c. Mitosis – correct
d. Transduction
e. None of the above